• Welcome to the new COTI server. We've moved the Citizens to a new server. Please let us know in the COTI Website issue forum if you find any problems.

Radio and Tightbeam Comm Range

Because you're losing signal during the microsecond gaps, and because you're also leaping several hundred meters... a µLS is 2.96km,
What microsecond gaps? Instantaneous tunneling = zero time, not microseconds.
The passage of time experienced by a stuttering ship/its crew/equipment is in the (brief) recovery interval between cycles.


]so at any pseudospeed in excess of about 0.01c, you need to account for the leaps because it's going to significantly affect the apparent gap length.
Okay, I concede that point. In STL space @ warp effiiciency 1, the latency should be around 6% worst case. The unprocessed audio/video would be somewhat choppy and annoying, but intelligible.
 
It might not sound very technical but I've always considered the jump to be instant but the millisecond you are "about to" and "just jumped" to at least be measureable. Cycling time maybe where the process has you sort of "out of phase"
 
Last edited:
It might not sound very technical but I've always considered the jump to be instant but the millisecond you are "about to" and "just jumped" to at least me measureable.

That time is the cycling delay. The ref's book doesn't mention it, but its existence can be inferred, since a voyage would be instantaneous with zero tunnel time and zero cycle delay.

As to what "phase state" your molecules are in during the delay, the books don't mention that either. The device is based on a quantum principle, so your guess is as good as anyone else's.
 
What microsecond gaps? Instantaneous tunneling = zero time, not microseconds.
The passage of time experienced by a stuttering ship/its crew/equipment is in the (brief) recovery interval between cycles.



Okay, I concede that point. In STL space @ warp effiiciency 1, the latency should be around 6% worst case. The unprocessed audio/video would be somewhat choppy and annoying, but intelligible.

It isn't instant - it's at least 1 plank unit.
 
It isn't instant - it's at least 1 plank unit.

Considerably longer, but less than 10^38 planck units. Before tunnelling p (probability) = 1.0 and the start and 0.0 at the end point, and visa versa at the end. Tunnelling being tunnelling during the tunnelling event p =/=0 at both points, so it is at both.
 
Back
Top